practice MDCAT paper 2022

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MDCAT Paper 2022

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Q.200 . The literacy rate in the district has been increasing. II. The district administration has conducted extensive training program for the workers involved in the literacy drive.

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Q.199 Read the following statement, assuming everything in it to be true. Then decide which of the given suggested courses of action logically follow and are worth pursuing. 

Statement:

"Aalia wants to sleep but cannot due to regular noise in and around her house every day." Courses of Action:

I. Insert good quality noise blockers into her ears. 

II. Take strong sleeping pills."

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Q.198 Some bags are pouches. All pouches are cases. No cases are purses. Which of the following conclusions are NECESSARILY TRUE?

 CONCLUSIONS:

 I. Some pouches are purses

 II. Some bags are cases.

 III. No bags are purses.

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Q.197 Read the following and choose the correct answer:

 Drake was wearing a blue shirt with black jeans and brown shoes. John was wearing a red shirt with black jeans and black shoes. Ahmad was wearing a blue shirt with blue jeans and brown shoes. Nahaz claims he saw someone wearing black jeans, a blue or red shirt, and shoes that were not black. Who did he see?

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Q.196 Observe the pattern and select the next term in the sequence: CAB, FAE, IAH

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Q.195 Read the passage and the following statements below. Then choose the correct option, basing your answer only on the information provided.

Queen Elizabeth II's Platinum Jubilee, celebrating her 70 years on the British throne, was above all a tribute to one of history's great acts of constancy. Her reign spanned virtually the entire post-World War II era, making her a witness to cultural upheavals from the Beatles to Brexit.

STATEMENTS:

  1. There has been another queen of the British throne named Elizabeth before her

. II. Brexit is a normal occurrence.

 III. Elizabeth was Queen of the British during World War II.

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Q.194 The newly elected president and CEO for the newly established branch of our company ..... arrived recently. Fill the blank with the appropriate choice:

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Q.193 Wasim was so good at Mathematics that people considered him to be____.Fill in the  blank with the correct response.

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Q.192 "To cut off the head". idiom means:

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Q.191 I decided to sell the piece of land when I was offered more____price. The most appropriate word to be filled in here is:

 

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Q.190 Choose the sentence that is grammatically correct.

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Q.189 Identify the sentence, out of the following, that is error free:

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Q.188 Choose the correct sentence:

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Q.187 Distribute the handouts____ the candidates. The correct preposition to be filled in is:

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Q.186 Choose the sentence with the correct use of article.

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Q.185 Which of the following sentences is correct?

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Q.184 Which one of the following is correct?

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Q.183 Choose the most suitable/appropriate sentence out of the following:

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Q.182 By 2030, people..... been reading the works of Charles Dickens for more than

190 years

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Q.181 To give one some idea of Rabies' horrors, one___ only read such descriptions as the following: spasms, restlessness, shudders at the least breath of air, an ardent thirst, convulsive movements, and fits of furious age.

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Q.180 Fill in the blank with the correct word. The shepherd ploughed this mountain with cattle the first time it....... ever ploughed.

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Q.179 Choose the most appropriate antonym for "abandonment":

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Q.178 Diseases like diabetes are supposed to be taken seriously or they can be____Whichof the following words will fill in the blank most appropriately?

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Q.177 Synonym of the word "Capricious" is

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Q.176 The half-life of Strontium (Sr) is 8.70 hours. Its decay constant is:

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Q.175 It has been observed that Thorium (_90^234)Th is transformed into Protactinium (_91^234) Pa after the emission of____particle:

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Q.174 A low energy neutron has RBE factor of 10. How much energy is absorbed by a man of mass 80 Kg if the value of equivalent dose is 400 rem?

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Q.173 The speed of electron in the first Bohr orbit is:

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Q.172 The line spectrum of hydrogen atom contains the spectral lines in the region of:

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Q.171 In a photoelectric effect experiment, the stopping potential is:

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Q.170 The process of ejection of loosely bound electrons from a certain photo sensitive surface by absorption of photon is called:

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Q.169 If electron, proton, neutron, and alpha particle have same velocity, which of them has shortest wavelength?

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Q.168 When the temperature of semiconductor suddenly drops to zero kelvin, then a semiconductor acts as:

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Q.167 In transformer, there is no_____ connection between the two coils but they are______linked?

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Q.166 A copper hoop is held in a vertical east-west plane in a uniform magnetic field whose field lines run along the north-south direction. The largest induced emf is produced when the hoop is ?

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Q.165 Working principal of magnetic levitation train is according to ?

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Q.164 The unit of Δ𝛗 /Δt can be written as ?

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Q.163 One meter long copper rod is moving with speed 20 m/sec in the magnetic field of strength 0.6 tesla. What is the value of induced emf ?

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Q.162 The source of magnetic field is:

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Q.161 Which surface has greater magnetic flux in same magnetic field, each has an area 1 m^2.

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Q.160 Electric forces change the magnitude and direction of velocity while magnetic forces change______ of velocity

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Q.159 A low voltage supply with an e.m.f. of 20 V and an internal resistance of 1.5 ohms is used to supply power to a heater of resistance 6.5 ohms in a fish tank. What is the power supplied to the water in the fish tank?

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Q.158 What do the substances whose resistance decreases with increase in temperature have?

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Q.157 Which of the following statement is NOT CORRECT about Kirchhoff's rule?

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Q.156 The resistance of a conductor does not depend on which of the following?

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Q.155 A 3 V battery is connected in series with ammeter and 2 ohm resistance after short circuiting. What will be the reading of ammeter?

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Q.154 How much potential drop exist across closed switch?

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Q.153 A capacitor of capacitance 'C' has a charge 'Q' and stored energy is 'w'. If the charge is increases to '2Q'. The stored energy will be:

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Q.152 A charged particle is moving in a uniform electric field. For the motion of the particle due to the field, which quantity has a constant non-zero value?

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Q.151 The Coulomb's constant k depends upon:

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Q.150 Which one of the following statements is true?

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Q.149. Gauss law cannot be used to find which of the following quantity?

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Q.148. What is the potential difference between two points in an electric field if it takes 600 J of energy to move a charge of 2 C between these two points?

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Q.147 A capacitor is charged with a battery and energy stored is U. After disconnecting battery another capacitor of same capacity is connected in parallel to the first capacitor. Then energy stored in each capacitor is

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Q.146 Temperature of given mass of a gas is changed from 150°C to 300°C during an isobaric process, volume of the gas will become:

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Q.145 When a gas is compressed isothermally, the product of its pressure and volume the process is:

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Q.144 Thermodynamics is that branch of Physics in which we study

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Q.143 A distant star is receding from the Earth with a speed of 1.40 x 10^7 m/s. It emits light of frequency 4.57 x 10^14 Hz. The speed of light is 3.0 x 10^8 m/s. The Doppler effect formula can be used with light waves. What will be the frequency of this light when detected on Earth?

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Q.142 Reducing mass M of a suspending body to one fourth will change the frequency of oscillation to:

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Q.141 The mechanical waves are not generated by:

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Q.140 When will the oscillations stop in the absence of resistive forces?

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Q.139 The shortest distance between any two points in phase on a wave is called:

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Q.138. If the wavelength of light coming from a galaxy shifts towards the red end of spectrum, then galaxy is:

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Q.137 An airplane travels at a speed of 0.5v where v is the speed of sound. The airplane approaches a stationary observer. The frequency of sound emitted by the aircraft is 200 Hz. Which frequency does the observer hear?

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Q.136 Which of the following increases by increasing amplitude?

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Q.135 A fighter plane is moving in a vertical circle of radius r. Its minimum velocity at the highest point of the circle will be ?

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Q.134 If a flywheel is rotating at 3.0 rad/s, the time it takes to complete one revolution is about

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Q.133 The number of revolutions in 3n radians is:

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Q.132 A particle of mass m at rest is acted upon by a force P for time t. Its kinetic energy after time t is:

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Q.131 Ignoring details associated with friction, extra forces exerted by arm and leg muscles, and other factors, we can consider a pole vault as the conversion of an athlete's running kinetic energy to gravitational potential energy. If an athlete is to lift his body 5 m during a vault, what speed must he have when he plants his pole?

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Q.130   A long spring, when stretched by a distance x, has potential energy V. On increasing the stretching to nx, the potential energy of the spring will be:

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Q.129 The consumption of energy by a 60 W bulb in 2 s is:

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Q.128  When a heavy coin falls a short distance towards the ground it does not reach terminal velocity. Why is this so?

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Q.127 A fireman wants to slide down a rope. The breaking load of the rope is 3/4 th of the weight of the man. With what acceleration should the fire man slide down? ( Acceleration due to gravity is 'g')

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Q.126 Which of the following is incorrect?

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Q.125 A stone thrown horizontally from the top of a tall building follows a path that is:

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Q.124 Which of the following is the correct definition of variable velocity?

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Q.123 What is the shape of velocity-time graph for constant acceleration?

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Q.122 Which of the following proteins acts as a carrier of copper in blood plasma?

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Q.121 When food reaches stomach, the action of which of the following come to an end due to acidic PH?

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Q.120 When carboxylic acids and dicarboxylic acids have similar molecular weights, how do their melting points compare?

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Q.119 If carboxylic acid and ketone groups C=O are present in a chain then final name will be given as

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Q.118 Which among the following have least pH?

84 / 200

Q.117 Which of the following is also called silver mirror test?

85 / 200

Q.116 Which is the most suitable reagent for the conversion of R-CH2OH → RCHO?

86 / 200

Q.115 Which of the following is the correct name of CH3CH2CH2COCH2CHO?

87 / 200

Q.114 When Phenol reacts with formaldehyde, which of the following products is produced?

88 / 200

Q.113 Benzene is formed when Na reacts with which of the following?

89 / 200

Q.112 What is the common name of 1,2,3-propanetriol?

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Q.111 Neopentylchloride belongs to which class of alkyl halides?

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Q.110 Freon is commonly known as ?

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Q.109  When halogen is removed from an alkyl halide a carbocation is formed, identify the most reactive carbocation

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Q.108 The ratio of sigma to pi electrons in benzene is?

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Q.107 Consider the chlorination of methane, the attack of chlorine free radical on methane form methyl free radical occurs in ?

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Q.106 Which of the following compound is more acidic?

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Q.105 Three alternate single and double bonds in benzene are called?

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Q.104   Alkylbenzene is formed when benzene is treated with an alkyl halide in the presence of anhydrous aluminum chloride. Identify the type of reaction.

98 / 200

Q.103 What is the number of isomers of a hydrocarbon having a molecular formula, C4H8?

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Q.102 The compounds containing R-SH functional group are known as

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Q.101 In which of the following functional groups, the carbon atom is sp hybridized?

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Q.100  In which pair one has all Unpaired d orbitals while other have all paired d orbitals?

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Q.99 Which of the following complexes show a tetrahedral geometry?

103 / 200

Q.98 Which of the following sulphate compounds is insoluble in water?

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Q.97 Which group of the periodic table contains non-metals, metalloids and metals.

105 / 200

Q.96 Why dimer of Aluminum chloride is formed

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Q.95 AB4 Type with no Lone Pairs geometry enables to form which shape of molecule?

107 / 200

Q.94 Which statement describes the conversion of magnesium atoms to magnesium ions for ionic bond formation with chlorine?

108 / 200

Q.93 Among LiCl, BeCl2, NaCl, CsCI, the compounds with the greatest and the least ionic character respectively are:

109 / 200

Q.92  Which of the following element has smaller size?

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Q.91  In which of the following, oxygen shows fractional oxidation number?

111 / 200

Q.90  An electrochemical cell is based upon which reaction?

112 / 200

Q.89 Which of the following term is state function?

113 / 200

Q.88 Born-Haber cycle is used to determine the Lattice energy of ionic compounds. It is the application of

114 / 200

Q.87  The catalysis in which the catalyst and the reactants are in the same phase is known?

115 / 200

Q.86 What is the overall order of this rate equation? Rate = k[H2][NO2]2

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Q.85 One can estimate the direction in which equilibrium will shift with the help of:

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Q.84 The precipitation occurs if the ionic concentration is:

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Q.83 The decrease in solubility of the salt in a solution that already contains an ion common to that salt is known as:

119 / 200

Q.82 Which type of solid is called as atomic solid?

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Q.81 A small building block which belongs to whole information about crystal structure is called?

121 / 200

Q.80 Which of the following factors does not affect the magnitude of vapor pressure?

122 / 200

Q.79 In liquid, with the change in dipole-dipole forces, there is a change in some physical properties. Select the property which is not affected by the strength of dipole-dipole forces?

123 / 200

Q.78 The process of heat flow between hotter and colder gases remains continued until all the molecules have equal

124 / 200

Q.77 If we want to raise the temperature of one mole of an ideal gas by one kelvin, we have to provide how much amount of energy?

125 / 200

Q.76 A gaseous mixture contains 9.6% NH3, 22.6% N2 and 67.8% H2 gases. If the total pressure is 50 atm, then the partial pressure of H2 is

126 / 200

Q.75 What is the proton (atomic number) of an element that has four unpaired electrons in its ground state?

127 / 200

Q.74 Which element has the ground state electronic configuration of 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6?

128 / 200

Q.73 Which gas in the discharge tube produces lightest canal ray particles?

129 / 200

Q.72According to which scientist, the probability of finding an electron at a certain position is possible?

130 / 200

Q.71  30 grams of 2-propanol were mixed with excess acidified K2Cr2O7and boiled under reflux for 20 minutes. The organic product was then collected by distillation. The yield of product was 75.0%. What is the mass of product produced?

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Q.70 A compound of sodium oxide has 74.2 % sodium and 25.8% of Oxygen. The empirical formula of the compound is?

132 / 200

Q.69 One a. m.u stands for

133 / 200

Q.68 Mode of inheritance in humans can be traced through:

134 / 200

Q.67 Which one of the following is X Linked Dominant disorder?

135 / 200

Q.66 To study sex linkages in Drosophila, Morgan mated white eyed males with wild type red eyed females. What will be the phenotype of offspring?

136 / 200

Q.65 DNA stores biological information in discrete units termed as:

137 / 200

Q.64 What happens when a Rh -ve woman, married to a Rh +ve man conceives a child who is Rh +ve?

138 / 200

Q.63 Test cross is made to check the genotype of a trait. Which of the following crosses is a test cross?

139 / 200

Q.62 Hinge joint is present between which of the following bones?

140 / 200

Q.61 Which of the following is NOT found in skeletal muscle fibres in humans?

141 / 200

Q.60 Which of the following is a muscle component that act as a store for energy?

142 / 200

Q.59 What is FALSE about cartilage?

143 / 200

Q.58 Major source of transmission of syphilis is:

144 / 200

Q.57 Level of luteinizing hormone (LH) is maximum in blood during which stage of the menstrual cycle?

145 / 200

Q.56 Fertilized ovum is implanted and undergoes further development in the:

146 / 200

Q.55 Which cells in the human males are responsible for the release of testosterone?

147 / 200

Q.54 Each human testis is divided into:

148 / 200

Q.53  Nitrifying bacteria are the examples of:

149 / 200

Q.52  Which of the following statement is correct?

150 / 200

Q.51 The division of cocci in three planes form Sarcina, which is a cube of____ Cocci?

151 / 200

Q.50  Number of layers present in Gram-negative bacterial cell wall:

152 / 200

Q.49 Which of the following is a prokaryote?

153 / 200

Q.48 The respiratory surfaces exhibit the following characteristic?

154 / 200

Q.47 Which of the following is NOT a consequence of anaerobic respiration in humans muscles cells?

155 / 200

Q.46 The pressure exerted by a solution separated by a semipermeable membrane from pure water is_____ ?

156 / 200

Q.45 Flow of blood in the capillaries is adjusted by?

157 / 200

Q.44  The lymphatic vessels of the body empty the lymph into the blood stream at ?

158 / 200

Q.43_______proteins are produced by WBCs in response to--------- and provide immunity?

159 / 200

Q.42 Digested food from the intestine is carried to the liver by?

160 / 200

Q.41 The animal species on Galapagos resemble species living on the:

161 / 200

Q.40 According to the Biogenetic Law of Ernst Haeckel:

162 / 200

Q.39 For evolutionary process to occur, which of the following is NOT a geographical barrier?

163 / 200

Q.38 Adaptations that an organism acquires by its own actions during its life span without modifying its genome are:

164 / 200

Q.37 What is the best physiological pH for optimum functioning for most of the cellular enzymes of human?

165 / 200

Q.36 Zinc ion is attached at the active site of the enzyme carboxypeptidase. The zinc ion functions as:

166 / 200

Q.35 Non-competitive inhibitor molecules have:

167 / 200

Q.34 Competitive inhibitors compete with?

168 / 200

Q.33 Enzymes lower the activation energy by stabilizing the transition state of a metabolic reaction due to?

169 / 200

Q.32 Tissue are not found in the following animal?

170 / 200

Q.31 Silver fish is a/an?

171 / 200

Q.30 Round worms belong to which phylum?

172 / 200

Q.29 Water vascular system or ambulacral system is a unique and complex system specially present in?

173 / 200

Q.28 The part of brain which guides smooth and accurate motions and maintains body position is:

174 / 200

Q.27 The middle layer of meninges is:

175 / 200

Q.26 Hormone produced by placenta is:

176 / 200

Q.25  A hormone that plays a major role in social bonding, childbirth, milk ejection and sexual reproduction is:

177 / 200

Q.24 The neurotransmitter active outside the CNS (Central Nervous System) is:

178 / 200

Q.23  There is no clear difference between dendrites and axons in sensory neurons, except

179 / 200

Q.22 Which one is common in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

180 / 200

Q.21 The cell wall of Bacteria is made up of:

181 / 200

Q.20 The digestive vacuoles and autophagosomes are also known as?

182 / 200

Q.19 Movement of molecules against the concentration gradient is?

183 / 200

Q.18 Which of the following are single membranous organelles?

184 / 200

Q.17 Structure formed by invagination of plasma membrane and involved in cell division and DNA replication of prokaryotic cell: 

185 / 200

Q.16 Cell wall may be absent in which of the following?

186 / 200

Q.15 Proteins are the main ---------- of the cell?

187 / 200

Q.14 Hydrolysis process is a reverse of_____ process.

188 / 200

Q.13 Which of the following is a conjugated molecule?

189 / 200

Q.12 Butyric acid is a____ carbon fatty acid.

190 / 200

Q.11 Unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide, constitutes:

191 / 200

Q.10 Human Bone cells contain..........% of water?

192 / 200

Q.9 Upon initial hydrolysis starch yields:

193 / 200

Q.8 What is the colour of Chlorophyll-b molecule?

194 / 200

Q.7 Electron transport chain explains:

195 / 200

Q.6 Each carrier in Electron Transport Chain is first____ and then___

196 / 200

Q.5 What is the end product of glucose by yeast in anaerobic respiration?

197 / 200

Q.4 The enzymes integrase, protease and reverse transcriptase are found in which virus?

198 / 200

Q.3 How may tail fibrils are attached to the end plate of a bacteriophage?

 

199 / 200

Q.2 What of the following virus contains single stranded DNA?

200 / 200

Q.1 What does the term bacteriophage refer to?

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